PMP认证考试试题精选（5）

　　1. The subdivision of major project deliverables, as identified in the scope statement, into
　　
　　smaller, more manageable components is called:
　　
　　
　　a. parametric estimation.
　　
　　
　　b. scope definition.
　　
　　
　　c. feasibility analysis.
　　
　　
　　d. benefit-cost analysis.
　　
　　
　　2. The process of establishing clear and achievable objectives, measuring their achievement,
　　
　　
　　and adjusting performance in aclearcase/" target="_blank" >ccordance with the results of the measurement is called:
　　
　　
　　a. strategic planning.
　　
　　
　　b. alternative objectives inventory.
　　
　　
　　c. management by objectives.
　　
　　
　　d. contingency planning.
　　
　　
　　3. A fundamental tenet of modern quality management holds that quality is most likely to be
　　
　　
　　achieved by:
　　
　　
　　a. planning it into the project.
　　
　　
　　b. developing final inspections for quality.
　　
　　
　　c. striving to do the best job possible.
　　
　　
　　d. conducting quality circle activities.
　　
　　
　　4. The time-phased budget that will be used to measure and monitor cost performance in the
　　
　　
　　project is called the:
　　
　　
　　a. work breakdown structure.
　　
　　
　　b. project schedule.
　　
　　
　　c. cost baseline.
　　
　　
　　d. cost budget.
　　
　　
　　5. At XYZ Inc., the hourly wage for semi-skilled workers is .00. The annual audit shows
　　
　　
　　that fringe benefits cost 30% of basic wages, and that overhead costs are 60% of wages plus
　　
　　
　　fringe benefits. What is the “loaded” hourly wage for a semi-skilled worker at XYZ Inc.?
　　
　　
　　a. .40.
　　
　　
　　b. .60.
　　
　　
　　c. .12.
　　
　　
　　d. .33.
　　
　　
　　6. When there is uncertainty associated with one or more aspects of the project, one of the first
　　
　　
　　steps to take is to:
　　
　　
　　a. revise project plan.
　　
　　
　　b. conduct a risk-benefit analysis.
　　
　　
　　c. conduct a needs analysis.
　　
　　
　　d. increase the estimated cost.
　　
　　
　　7. A narrative description of products or services to be supplied under contract is called:
　　
　　
　　a. the project plan.
　　
　　
　　b. a statement of work.
　　
　　
　　c. an exception report.
　　
　　
　　d. Pareto analysis.
　　
　　
　　8. An example of scope verification is:
　　
　　
　　a. reviewing the performance of an installed software module.
　　
　　
　　b. managing changes to the project schedule.
　　
　　
　　c. decomposing the WBS to a work package level.
　　
　　
　　d. performing a benefit/cost analysis to determine if the project should proceed.
　　
　　
　　9. All of the following are examples of a source of scope change except:
　　
　　
　　a. a variation in government regulations.
　　
　　
　　b. failure to include a required feature in the design of a telecommunication system.
　　
　　
　　c. discovering a need to engage in bottom-up cost estimating.
　　
　　
　　d. introducing technology that was not available when scope was originally defined.
　　
　　
　　10. Learning curve theory emphasizes that in producing many goods:
　　
　　
　　a. cost decreases as production rates increase.
　　
　　
　　b. average unit cost decreases as more units are produced.
　　
　　
　　c. materials become cheaper when they are purchased in bulk.
　　
　　
　　d. laborers become more productive because of technological advances.
　　
　　
　　11. Adjusting resources applied to maintain constant resource loading is called:
　　
　　
　　a. floating.
　　
　　
　　b. leveling.
　　
　　
　　c. restructuring.
　　
　　
　　d. crashing.
　　
　　
　　12. Configuration management is:
　　
　　
　　a. used to ensure that the description of the product is correct and complete.
　　
　　
　　b. the creation of the work breakdown structure.
　　
　　
　　c. the set of procedures developed to assure that project design criteria are met.
　　
　　
　　d. a mechanism to track budget and schedule variances.
　　
　　
　　13. The type of contract that transfers most of the cost risk to the seller is:
　　
　　
　　a. cost plus award fee.
　　
　　
　　b. fixed incentive fee.
　　
　　
　　c. cost plus fixed fee.
　　
　　
　　d. fixed price.
　　
　　
　　14. It is critical for your company to offer its products on the Internet to increase its market
　　
　　
　　share. The company has no previous experience in this area, but it believes that knowledge
　　
　　
　　is needed rapidly. As you have shown an interest in the Internet, you are asked to start
　　
　　
　　planning for this project. The first step to take as you begin planning is to:
　　
　　
　　a. identify the risks.
　　
　　
　　b. plan the scope.
　　
　　
　　c. prepare a schedule.
　　
　　
　　d. negotiate a budget.
　　
　　
　　15. Given the information in the following table, what is the expected value from this risk event?
　　
　　
　　Probability Result
　　
　　
　　.4 -10,000
　　
　　
　　.3 -7,500
　　
　　
　　.2 -5,000
　　
　　
　　.1 +2,500
　　
　　
　　a. -10,000.
　　
　　
　　b. - 7,500.
　　
　　
　　c. + 2,500.
　　
　　
　　d. -7,000.
　　
　　
　　16. A contractor is working on a fixed price contract that calls for a single, lump sum payment
　　
　　
　　upon satisfactory completion of the contract. About halfway through the contract, the
　　
　　
　　contractor’s project manager informs their contract administrator that financial problems
　　
　　
　　are making it difficult for them to pay their employees and subcontractors. The contractor
　　
　　
　　asks for a partial payment for work accomplished. Which of the following actions by the
　　
　　
　　buyer is most likely to cause problems for the project?
　　
　　
　　a. starting partial payments for work accomplished.
　　
　　
　　b. adhering to the contract and making no early payments.
　　
　　
　　c. paying for all work accomplished to date only.
　　
　　
　　d. demanding penalty free options to make early payments.
　　
　　
　　17. To be successful, negotiating must be conducted in an atmosphere of:
　　
　　
　　a. flexibility and understanding.
　　
　　
　　b. sincerity and thoughtfulness.
　　
　　
　　c. mutual respect and cooperation.
　　
　　
　　d. sincerity and prudent caution.
　　
　　
　　18. Inputs to cost budgeting include all of the following except:
　　
　　
　　a. cost baseline.
　　
　　
　　b. cost estimates.
　　
　　
　　c. work breakdown structure.
　　
　　
　　d. project schedule.
　　
　　
　　19. A precise description of a deliverable includes a:
　　
　　
　　a. specification.
　　
　　
　　b. baseline.
　　
　　
　　c. work package.
　　
　　
　　d. WBS element.
　　
　　
　　20. Theory X management is based upon an assumption that:
　　
　　
　　a. quality improvements lie in the hands of quality circles.
　　
　　
　　b. profits are tied to meeting the project’s baseline milestones.
　　
　　
　　c. absenteeism is tied to poor working conditions.
　　
　　
　　d. workers are inherently unmotivated and need strong guidance.
　　
　　21. All of the following are characteristics of parametric estimating except:
　　
　　
　　a. historical data inputs.
　　
　　
　　b. quantifiable relationships.
　　
　　
　　c. scalable calculations.
　　
　　
　　d. international standards.
　　
　　
　　22. Of the following estimates, which most accurately reflect the actual cost of the project?
　　
　　
　　a. bottom-up estimates.
　　
　　
　　b. order of magnitude estimates.
　　
　　
　　c. preliminary estimates.
　　
　　
　　d. conceptual estimates.
　　
　　
　　23. Including a contingency reserve in the project budget is intended to:
　　
　　
　　a. reduce the probability of scope changes.
　　
　　
　　b. increase the effectiveness of scope controls.
　　
　　
　　c. reduce the probability of a cost overrun.
　　
　　
　　d. increase the effectiveness of cost controls.
　　
　　
　　24. Cost control outputs include all of the following except:
　　
　　
　　a. estimate at completion.
　　
　　
　　b. budget updates.
　　
　　
　　c. revised cost estimates.
　　
　　
　　d. cost baseline.
　　
　　
　　25. Pareto analysis, cause and effect diagrams, and flow charts are tools used in quality:
　　
　　
　　a. control.
　　
　　
　　b. assurance.
　　
　　
　　c. planning.
　　
　　
　　d. verification.
　　
　　
　　Ó 2002 Project Management Institute, Inc. and PMI - Dallas Chapter. All rights reserved. “PMI” is a federally registered trade and service
　　
　　
　　26. Constrained optimization methods of project selection typically include:
　　
　　
　　a. scoring models for procurement.
　　
　　
　　b. benefit-cost ratios for finance.
　　
　　
　　c. multi-objective programming algorithms.
　　
　　
　　d. subjective computer-based simulation analysis.
　　
　　
　　27. Activity duration estimate inputs include all of the following except:
　　
　　
　　a. resource requirements.
　　
　　
　　b. basis of estimates.
　　
　　
　　c. activity lists.
　　
　　
　　d. constraints.
　　
　　
　　28. Risk response development is intended to:
　　
　　
　　a. create steps to identify project risks.
　　
　　
　　b. formulate strategies for dealing with events.
　　
　　
　　c. document lessons learned from project risks.
　　
　　
　　d. develop measures to quantify project risks.
　　
　　
　　29. Inputs for project initiation include all of the following except:
　　
　　
　　a. a product description.
　　
　　
　　b. strategic plans.
　　
　　
　　c. a project charter.
　　
　　
　　d. selection criteria.
　　
　　
　　30. As part of the contract close-out, project management should document the:
　　
　　
　　a. statement of work.
　　
　　
　　b. payment schedules.
　　
　　
　　c. formal acceptance.
　　
　　
　　d. change control process.
　　
　　
　　31. The process of performance reporting includes all of the following except:
　　
　　
　　a. status reporting.
　　
　　
　　b. progress reporting.
　　
　　
　　c. forecasting.
　　
　　
　　d. product analysis.
　　
　　
　　32. Constructive team roles include:
　　
　　
　　a. investigator, clarifier, and closer.
　　
　　
　　b. compromiser, blocker, and closer.
　　
　　
　　c. initiator, encourager, and gatekeeper.
　　
　　
　　d. investigator, recognizer, and summarizer.
　　
　　
　　
　　
　　33. Which of the following statements concerning contract type is correct?
　　
　　
　　a. fixed price contracts offer buyers the highest potential risk.
　　
　　
　　b. cost reimbursable contracts offer buyers the lowest potential risk.
　　
　　
　　c. fixed price contracts are illegal in most regulated industries.
　　
　　
　　d. lump sum contracts offer sellers the highest potential risk.
　　
　　
　　34. A Work Breakdown Structure numbering system should allow project staff to:
　　
　　
　　a. identify the level at which individual WBS elements are found.
　　
　　
　　b. identify configuration management milestones.
　　
　　
　　c. estimate the costs of WBS elements.
　　
　　
　　d. provide project justification.
　　
　　
　　35. All of the following are true quality statements except:
　　
　　
　　a. Computer-aided design systems can improve quality, but only at the expense of
　　
　　
　　an increase in the cost of design.
　　
　　
　　b. Project quality management must address both management of the project and the
　　
　　
　　product of the project.
　　
　　
　　c. Recognition of key actions required of each team member is necessary to meet
　　
　　
　　quality objectives.
　　
　　
　　d. Quality improvement depends upon better definition and increased awareness of
　　
　　
　　the requirements/specifications.
　　
　　
　　36. A project was estimated to cost .5 million and scheduled to last six months. After three
　　
　　
　　months, the earned value analysis shows the following: EV = 0,000, PV = 0,000, and
　　
　　
　　AC = 0,000. The schedule and cost variances are:
　　
　　
　　a. SV = -0,000 / CV = -0,000.
　　
　　
　　b. SV = -,000 / CV = +0,000.
　　
　　
　　c. SV = +0,000 / CV = +0,000.
　　
　　
　　d. SV = +0,000 / CV = -0,000.
　　
　　
　　37. A precise summary of a physical item, procedure, or service for implementation of an item
　　
　　
　　or service is called a:
　　
　　
　　a. work package.
　　
　　
　　b. baseline description.
　　
　　
　　c. product description.
　　
　　
　　d. work breakdown structure.
　　
　　
　　38. All of the following are examples of tools often used in cost estimating except:
　　
　　
　　a. parametric modeling.
　　
　　
　　b. duration estimating.
　　
　　
　　c. bottom-up estimating.
　　
　　
　　d. analogous estimating.
　　
　　
　　39. The most crucial time for project risk assessment is:
　　
　　
　　a. when a problem surfaces.
　　
　　
　　b. during the planning phase.
　　
　　
　　c. during the close-out phase.
　　
　　
　　d. after the schedule is published.
　　
　　
　　40. Inputs used during scope planning include all of the following except:
　　
　　
　　a. constraints.
　　
　　
　　b. project charter.
　　
　　
　　c. budget/cost analysis.
　　
　　
　　d. product description.
　　
　　
　　
　　41. A scope statement is important because it:
　　
　　
　　a. provides the basis for making future project decisions.
　　
　　
　　b. provides an executive summary of the project for sponsors.
　　
　　
　　c. documents approval of the project for the stakeholders.
　　
　　
　　d. provided criteria for measuring total project cost.
　　
　　
　　42. The major processes for project integration management are project plan development:
　　
　　
　　a. project plan execution, and scope change control.
　　
　　
　　b. project plan execution, and overall change control.
　　
　　
　　c. overall change control, and scope change control.
　　
　　
　　d. project initiation, and overall change control.
　　
　　
　　43. A project’s payback period ends when:
　　
　　
　　a. maximum profit for that period is realized.
　　
　　
　　b. total project costs are minimized.
　　
　　
　　c. total monthly revenue equals total monthly costs.
　　
　　
　　d. cumulative revenue equals cumulative costs.
　　
　　
　　44. A project should be terminated for all of the following reasons except:
　　
　　
　　a. lack of team synergy necessary to achieve top quality.
　　
　　
　　b. the project no longer meets the company’s objectives.
　　
　　
　　c. the resources are not available to complete project activities.
　　
　　
　　d. project funding has been significantly reduced.
　　
　　
　　45. The decomposition process is a technique used to construct a:
　　
　　
　　a. precedence network diagram.
　　
　　
　　b. critical path analysis.
　　
　　
　　c. cost variance analysis.
　　
　　
　　d. work breakdown structure.
　　
　　
　　46. The first topic to address in a project kick-off meeting is:
　　
　　
　　a. roles and responsibilities.
　　
　　
　　b. resource plans and schedules.
　　
　　
　　c. project plans and budgets.
　　
　　
　　d. project scope and schedules.
　　
　　
　　47. Inputs into overall change control include all of the following except:
　　
　　
　　a. project plan.
　　
　　
　　b. change requests.
　　
　　
　　c. change control system.
　　
　　
　　d. performance reports.
　　
　　
　　48. A project schedule completion date will change if:
　　
　　
　　a. the critical path is shortened.
　　
　　
　　b. contingency funds are used.
　　
　　
　　c. float time is allocated too late.
　　
　　
　　d. project resources are added early.
　　
　　
　　49. Risk quantification includes:
　　
　　
　　a. sub-totaling internal and external events.
　　
　　
　　b. identifying potential risks and impact.
　　
　　
　　c. evaluating event probability and impact.
　　
　　
　　d. developing contingency plans and resources.
　　
　　
　　50. The most common sequence for risk management activities is risk identification, :
　　
　　
　　a. risk quantification, and risk response development.
　　
　　
　　b. risk response assessment, and risk planning.
　　
　　
　　c. risk mitigation, and risk management.
　　
　　
　　d. risk elimination, and risk mitigation.
　　
　　
　　51. The objective of fast tracking a project is to:
　　
　　
　　a. increase productivity.
　　
　　
　　b. reduce project duration.
　　
　　
　　c. accelerate cost tracking.
　　
　　
　　d. mitigate project risks.
　　
　　
　　52. Complex projects, involving cross-disciplinary efforts, are most effectively managed by a:
　　
　　
　　a. projectized organization.
　　
　　
　　b. functional organization.
　　
　　
　　c. strong matrix organization.
　　
　　
　　d. strong virtual organization.
　　
　　
　　53. You’ve been engaged to manage a project with an estimated cost of ,000,000 that has been
　　
　　
　　publicly approved by the project’s sponsor. Your earned value calculations indicate that the
　　
　　
　　project will be completed on time and under budget by 0,000. Based on this calculation,
　　
　　
　　your personal profit will decrease by ,000. You should plan to:
　　
　　
　　a. invoice for the full amount because the budget has been made public.
　　
　　
　　b. add features to improve the quality without exceeding the public budget.
　　
　　
　　c. inform the end-user that you can add features without exceeding the budget.
　　
　　
　　d. inform the project sponsor of the projected financial outcomes.
　　
　　
　　54. One common way to compute estimated at completion (EAC) is to take the project
　　
　　
　　budgeted-at-completion and:
　　
　　
　　a. divide it by the schedule performance index.
　　
　　
　　b. multiply it by the schedule performance index.
　　
　　
　　c. multiply it by the cost performance.
　　
　　
　　d. divide it by the cost performance index.
　　
　　
　　55. Project sponsors have the greatest influence on the scope, quality, time, and cost of the
　　
　　
　　project during the:
　　
　　
　　a. concept phase.
　　
　　
　　b. development phase.
　　
　　
　　c. execution phase.
　　
　　
　　d. closeout phase.
　　
　　
　　56. Ideally, communication between the project manager and the project team members should
　　
　　
　　take place:
　　
　　
　　a. via daily or weekly status reports.
　　
　　
　　b. through approved template forms.
　　
　　
　　c. by written and oral communication.
　　
　　
　　d. through the formal chain of command.
　　
　　
　　57. During the project scope planning process, the work breakdown structure should be
　　
　　
　　developed to:
　　
　　
　　a. the sub-project levels by phase.
　　
　　
　　b. the levels determined by the project office.
　　
　　
　　c. levels allowing for adequate estimates.
　　
　　
　　d. cost center levels for budgeting.
　　
　　
　　58. Responses to risk threats include all of the following except:
　　
　　
　　a. avoidance.
　　
　　
　　b. acceptance.
　　
　　
　　c. mitigation.
　　
　　
　　d. rejection.
　　
　　
　　59. To learn who has approval authority for revisions in scope, a project manager should:
　　
　　
　　a. refer to the resource assignment matrix.
　　
　　
　　b. refer to the change control plan.
　　
　　
　　c. review the original project charter.
　　
　　
　　d. request a copy of the organization chart.
　　
　　
　　60. A purchase order represents a:
　　
　　
　　a. cash out-flow.
　　
　　
　　b. project expense.
　　
　　
　　c. commitment.
　　
　　
　　d. capital investment.
　　
　　
　　61. The process of determining how a risk event will affect the project schedule is called risk:
　　
　　
　　a. identification.
　　
　　
　　b. mitigation.
　　
　　
　　c. simulation.
　　
　　
　　d. assessment.
　　
　　
　　62. Conflict resolution techniques that may be used on a project include:
　　
　　
　　a. compromising, directing, and withdrawing.
　　
　　
　　b. compromising, smoothing, and withdrawing.
　　
　　
　　c. confronting, directing, and smoothing.
　　
　　
　　d. confronting, smoothing, and withdrawing.
　　
　　
　　63. Risk identification outputs include the following except:
　　
　　
　　a. risk triggers.
　　
　　
　　b. decision trees.
　　
　　
　　c. inputs to other processes.
　　
　　
　　d. risk events.
　　
　　
　　64. Configuration management is a technique for:
　　
　　
　　a. overall change control.
　　
　　
　　b. project plan execution.
　　
　　
　　c. scope planning.
　　
　　
　　d. risk quantification.
　　
　　
　　65. A key activity for achieving customer satisfaction is to define customer:
　　
　　
　　a. benefits.
　　
　　
　　b. requirements.
　　
　　
　　c. feedback.
　　
　　
　　d. preferences.
　　
　　
　　66. Your project is behind schedule due to conflict among team members. After resolving the
　　
　　
　　conflict, you should consider:
　　
　　
　　a. leveling the resources.
　　
　　
　　b. reducing resource loads.
　　
　　
　　c. reassigning resources.
　　
　　
　　d. crashing the schedule.
　　
　　
　　67. When it appears that a design error will interfere with meeting technical performance
　　
　　
　　objectives, the preferred response is to:
　　
　　
　　a. develop a new Work Breakdown Structure.
　　
　　
　　b. develop alternative solutions to the problem.
　　
　　
　　c. update the costs to set a new project baseline.
　　
　　
　　d. notify all project stakeholders of the error.
　　
　　
　　68. Your most recent project status report contains the following information:
　　
　　
　　BCWP = 3,000, ACWP = 3,500, and BCWS = 4,000. The schedule variance is:
　　
　　
　　a. + 1,000.
　　
　　
　　b. + 500.
　　
　　
　　c. - 500.
　　
　　
　　d. - 1,000.
　　
　　
　　69. All of the following are contract types except:
　　
　　
　　a. cost-reimbursable.
　　
　　
　　b. arbitration-based.
　　
　　
　　c. time and material.
　　
　　
　　d. fixed-price.
　　
　　
　　70. The disorientation experienced by individuals who suddenly find themselves living and
　　
　　
　　working in an unfamiliar environment is known as:
　　
　　
　　a. culture shock.
　　
　　
　　b. socio-centrism.
　　
　　
　　c. cultural bias.
　　
　　
　　d. ethno-centrism.
　　
　　
　　
　　试题答案:
　　
　　Question Answer
　　
　　
　　1 b 36 a
　　
　　
　　2 c 37 c
　　
　　
　　3 a 38 b
　　
　　
　　4 c 39 b
　　
　　
　　5 c 40 c
　　
　　
　　6 d 41 a
　　
　　
　　7 b 42 b
　　
　　
　　8 a 43 d
　　
　　
　　9 c 44 a
　　
　　
　　10 b 45 d
　　
　　
　　11 b 46 a
　　
　　
　　12 a 47 c
　　
　　
　　13 d 48 a
　　
　　
　　14 b 49 c
　　
　　
　　15 d 50 a
　　
　　
　　16 b 51 b
　　
　　
　　17 c 52 c
　　
　　
　　18 a 53 d
　　
　　
　　19 a 54 d
　　
　　
　　20 d 55 a
　　
　　
　　21 d 56 c
　　
　　
　　22 a 57 c
　　
　　
　　23 c 58 d
　　
　　
　　24 d 59 b
　　
　　
　　25 a 60 c
　　
　　
　　26 c 61 d
　　
　　
　　27 b 62 d
　　
　　
　　28 b 63 b
　　
　　
　　29 c 64 a
　　
　　
　　30 c 65 b
　　
　　
　　31 d 66 d
　　
　　
　　32 c 67 b
　　
　　
　　33 d 68 d
　　
　　
　　34 a 69 b
　　
　　
　　35 a 70 a
　　
　　

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